roxy_nash said:

There is a difference between no evidence and evidence of no effect, and this subject is one where the two get swapped freely in both directions.

Same experience, arrived at from the opposite direction.

labquiet_amy said:

Practical: whatever you change, write down the date and the reason.

There is a second half to this that has not been said yet. If two explanations both fit, the useful question is which one predicts something the other does not. That is answerable; arguing about which sounds more plausible is not.

Adding the numbers, since they settle part of this. Give anything pharmacological four weeks before you judge it, and give anything measured weekly a four-point rolling average before you call it a trend.

Following on from labquiet_amy — and this may be the naive question:

Did your prescriber agree with that reading, and if not what was their objection?

Moderator note: good thread. Keeping it here rather than moving it, because the question is general enough to be useful. Carry on.