This is the version of the explanation I wish somebody had given me, written down before I forget what confused me. It is about hair shedding, and it is deliberately narrow — everything I am not confident about is marked as such.
What is actually established
This is telogen effluvium and the trigger is the rate of weight loss rather than the molecule. Rapid loss pushes a large fraction of follicles into the resting phase simultaneously; they shed together two to four months later, which is why the shedding starts long after the loss did and why people misattribute the timing. It is self-limiting, and regrowth follows once the rate slows — the follicles are not damaged.
The condition it depends on
Worth adding that protein and iron adequacy affect the severity even though they do not cause it. Slow the rate, hit protein, check ferritin.
The practical version
The timeline that reassures people: trigger, then two to four months of nothing, then shedding for roughly three months, then regrowth. Diffuse thinning is expected; patches are a different diagnosis.
What I am not sure about
What I am after is whether the shedding is the drug or the rate of loss, and when it stops. Happy to be told the question itself is wrong.
— CanadaChris · corrections welcome and will be edited into this post with credit